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Warlocks Agonising Blast and Powerful cantrip
I'm not sure why you talk about Malediction and repelling blast I mentioned already it's normal they are not triggered by Powerful Cantrip. To me agonising blast shouldn't be considered as a separate effect that is all that's my feedback. We're just running circles here. There is nothing to add we disagree that's it. You can disagree with my feedback, that is still my feedback that I don't think it shouldn't be a separate effect
I'm not sure why you talk about Malediction and repelling blast I mentioned already it's normal they are not triggered by Powerful Cantrip. To me agonising blast shouldn't be considered as a separate effect that is all that's my feedback. We're just running circles here. There is nothing to add we disagree that's it. You can disagree with my feedback, that is still my feedback that I don't think it shouldn't be a separate effect
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Warlocks Agonising Blast and Powerful cantrip
Well of course, any damage only apply on a hit. Even unarmed strikes: "On a hit, an unarmed strike deals bludgeoning damage equal to 1 + your Strength modifier" because the game rules assume you do hit to deal damage, otherwise you don't. But the feat makes an exception, allowing you to still deal damage when you don't hit. I think we are disagreeing on the feat wording: "When a creature succeeds on a saving...
Well of course, any damage only apply on a hit. Even unarmed strikes: "On a hit, an unarmed strike deals bludgeoning damage equal to 1 + your Strength modifier" because the game rules assume you do hit to deal damage, otherwise you don't. But the feat makes an exception, allowing you to still deal damage when you don't hit. I think we are disagreeing on the feat wording: "When a creature succeeds on a saving...
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Warlocks Agonising Blast and Powerful cantrip
It's because you have 3 times as many chances to get 1 damage (30% chance on the D10) since a roll or 1, 2 or 3 = 1 Damage (or is it reduced to 0? I've never noticed damage reduced to 0) and only 1/10 chance to get a 10 (reduced to 5). So if I count the reduced damage on the D10 it's 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3...
It's because you have 3 times as many chances to get 1 damage (30% chance on the D10) since a roll or 1, 2 or 3 = 1 Damage (or is it reduced to 0? I've never noticed damage reduced to 0) and only 1/10 chance to get a 10 (reduced to 5). So if I count the reduced damage on the D10 it's 1 + 1 + 1 + 2 + 2 + 3...
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